Is the dif­ference between Rom 11:26 and Isa 59:20, or Ps 14:7 due to the NT use of the Septuagint?

Full Question

A recent article in the "Testimony" dealt with the New Testament use of the Septuagint. Is the dif­ference between Rom 11:26 and Isa 59:20, or Ps 14:7, due to that reason? If so, which is correct?


Answer

Yes, the difference between Rom. 11, 26 and Isa. 59, 20 is due to the N.T. making use of the Septuagint, whereas our O.T. is translated from the Hebrew, which differs in this passage. There is practically nothing more to be said about it. The LXX was sufficiently accurate for Paul’s purpose, and it re­flected truths abundantly taught else­where in the O.T.

The Heb. of Psa. 14, 7, is prac­tically identical with the Septuagint.

The Apostle is not quoting the Septuagint precisely, at least not the version we have. Or rather he is quoting two passages at once, for the purpose of sum­ming up a number of truths, viz., that “All Israel shall be saved by the Lord with an everlasting salvation.”